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Eating disorder — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

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HardAdolescent HealthEating disorderMCCQE Part 1

15-year-old girl presents with secondary amenorrhoea and weight loss. BMI is very low, pulse is 42/min and she exercises compulsively. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

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Correct answer: DArrange urgent medical stabilisation/admission and eating-disorder care

Arrange urgent medical stabilisation/admission and eating-disorder care is best because bradycardia and severe weight loss indicate medical instability. Provide reassurance only and arrange no follow-up is suboptimal because mental health risk often requires structured follow-up or urgent escalation; Use long-term benzodiazepine monotherapy as default treatment is suboptimal because benzodiazepine monotherapy is rarely an appropriate long-term strategy; Avoid direct risk assessment to preserve rapport is suboptimal because direct assessment of suicide, violence, capacity and substance use is clinically appropriate; Attribute symptoms to personality or culture without assessing illness is suboptimal because diagnostic overshadowing risks missing treatable mental illness. Medical risk may be high even when the patient denies concern.

Reference: Canadian Paediatric Society eating disorder statement