skip to main content

Testicular torsion — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyScrotal PainTesticular torsionMCCQE Part 1

16-year-old boy presents with sudden severe unilateral testicular pain. The testis is high-riding and cremasteric reflex is absent. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: C — Arrange immediate urologic exploration without delaying for imaging if suspicion is high

Arrange immediate urologic exploration without delaying for imaging if suspicion is high is best because sudden pain with high-riding testis suggests torsion. Discharge with oral analgesia only is suboptimal because analgesia alone may mask a surgical emergency; Delay surgical assessment until routine clinic is suboptimal because time-sensitive surgical presentations require urgent assessment; Treat with laxatives or antacids as sole therapy is suboptimal because a benign gastrointestinal explanation does not account for the red flags; Perform an invasive bedside procedure without imaging or senior input is suboptimal because invasive treatment can worsen outcomes when anatomy or diagnosis is uncertain. Time to detorsion determines testicular salvage.

Reference: Canadian Urological Association guidance