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Supraventricular tachycardia — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

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EasyPalpitationsSupraventricular tachycardiaMCCQE Part 1

30-year-old woman presents with sudden rapid regular palpitations. ECG shows narrow-complex tachycardia at 180/min and BP is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EAttempt vagal manoeuvres then give adenosine if unsuccessful

Attempt vagal manoeuvres then give adenosine if unsuccessful is best because stable regular narrow-complex tachycardia is treated initially with vagal manoeuvres/adenosine. Discharge after a single normal initial test is suboptimal because early cardiac disease can be missed by one isolated result; Arrange routine cardiology review without acute risk stratification is suboptimal because routine referral is too slow for a potentially unstable presentation; Give reassurance because the patient is young or previously well is suboptimal because age alone does not exclude serious cardiovascular disease; Treat only the symptom and omit ECG or biomarker-based assessment is suboptimal because cardiac presentations require objective assessment when suggested clinically. Instability would change the answer to synchronised cardioversion.

Reference: CCS arrhythmia guidance