skip to main content

Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardAbdominal DistensionSpontaneous bacterial peritonitisMCCQE Part 1

A 59-year-old man with cirrhosis and ascites presents with fever, abdominal pain and confusion. Diagnostic paracentesis shows ascitic neutrophils of 410 cells/mm3. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: E — Intravenous third-generation cephalosporin and albumin in selected high-risk patients

Ascitic neutrophils at or above 250 cells/mm3 diagnose spontaneous bacterial peritonitis and require immediate antibiotics. Lactulose may treat encephalopathy but does not treat the infection. Albumin is considered in patients at renal risk, and NSAIDs should generally be avoided in cirrhosis.

Reference: Canadian Association for the Study of the Liver; AASLD guidance used in Canadian practice