Polycystic ovary syndrome — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

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HardAbnormal Vaginal BleedingPolycystic ovary syndromeMCCQE Part 1

A 24-year-old woman has irregular menses, acne, hirsutism, negative pregnancy test and normal TSH and prolactin. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

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Correct answer: B — Polycystic ovary syndrome

Polycystic ovary syndrome is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit Polycystic ovary syndrome better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to SOGC PCOS guidance, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: SOGC PCOS guidance