Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

HardPregnancyPreterm prelabour rupture of membranesMCCQE Part 1

A 30-year-old woman at 31 weeks reports a gush of fluid and ongoing leakage; pooling is seen on speculum examination and she is afebrile. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: B — Admit for assessment, antenatal corticosteroids, latency antibiotics and fetal monitoring

Admit for assessment, antenatal corticosteroids, latency antibiotics and fetal monitoring is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit Preterm prelabour rupture of membranes better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to SOGC preterm birth guidance, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: SOGC preterm birth guidance