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Pre-eclampsia — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

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ModeratePregnancyPre-eclampsiaMCCQE Part 1

A 30-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks has headache, visual symptoms, BP 162/104 mmHg and proteinuria. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

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Correct answer: DAdmit for pre-eclampsia management, fetal assessment and seizure prophylaxis if severe features persist

Admit for pre-eclampsia management, fetal assessment and seizure prophylaxis if severe features persist is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit Pre-eclampsia better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to SOGC hypertensive disorders of pregnancy guidance, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: SOGC hypertensive disorders of pregnancy guidance