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Scaphoid fracture — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

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EasyFracturesScaphoid fractureMCCQE Part 1

A 20-year-old man falls on an outstretched hand; initial wrist radiographs are normal but he has anatomical snuffbox tenderness. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: BImmobilise in a thumb-spica splint and arrange repeat imaging or advanced imaging

Immobilise in a thumb-spica splint and arrange repeat imaging or advanced imaging is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit Scaphoid fracture better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to Canadian Orthopaedic Association guidance, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: Canadian Orthopaedic Association guidance