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Hip fracture — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

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EasyFracturesHip fractureMCCQE Part 1

An 84-year-old woman falls, cannot bear weight and has severe groin pain with the leg shortened and externally rotated. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

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Correct answer: BProvide analgesia and obtain urgent hip radiographs with orthopaedic admission

Provide analgesia and obtain urgent hip radiographs with orthopaedic admission is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit Hip fracture better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to Canadian Orthopaedic Association guidance, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: Canadian Orthopaedic Association guidance