skip to main content

HIV infection — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyWeight LossHIV infectionMCCQE Part 1

A 33-year-old man has weight loss, oral candidiasis, chronic diarrhoea, generalised lymphadenopathy and inconsistent condom use. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: EOffer HIV testing with counselling and assess for opportunistic infections

Offer HIV testing with counselling and assess for opportunistic infections is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit HIV infection better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to Canadian HIV guidelines, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: Canadian HIV guidelines