skip to main content

Diabetic ketoacidosis — MCCQE Part 1 MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

EasyDiabetesDiabetic ketoacidosisMCCQE Part 1

A 24-year-old man with type 1 diabetes has vomiting, abdominal pain, Kussmaul breathing, glucose 29 mmol/L, pH 7.12 and positive ketones. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: D — Start intravenous fluids, insulin infusion and potassium-guided monitoring

Start intravenous fluids, insulin infusion and potassium-guided monitoring is the single best answer because the age, timing, examination findings and investigations in the vignette fit Diabetic ketoacidosis better than the alternatives. The most tempting distractor is less appropriate because it either treats a neighbouring presentation, delays a time-critical intervention, or ignores a key discriminator in the stem. The remaining options are suboptimal because they would miss the diagnosis, use an investigation or treatment in the wrong sequence, or fail to address safety and follow-up. Canadian practice should be anchored to Diabetes Canada CPG, with attention to acuity, safety-netting and local provincial pathways.

Reference: Diabetes Canada CPG