skip to main content

Septic Arthritis Immunosuppressed — RACP Adult Medicine MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateRheumatologySeptic Arthritis ImmunosuppressedRACP Adult Medicine

A 65-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis on long-term low-dose prednisolone (5 mg daily) develops an acutely swollen, painful knee. Joint aspiration reveals a WCC of 55,000 cells/µL with 90% neutrophils but no crystals and negative Gram stain. Culture is pending. While awaiting culture results, how should this be managed?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: BTreat as septic arthritis with empirical IV antibiotics

In an immunosuppressed patient (on prednisolone) with an acutely inflamed joint and WCC >50,000 cells/µL with neutrophilic predominance, septic arthritis must be assumed until culture results return. Gram stain is only ~50% sensitive for septic arthritis – a negative Gram stain does NOT exclude infection. Empirical IV antibiotics (flucloxacillin for suspected S. aureus; vancomycin if MRSA risk) should be commenced immediately alongside repeated joint aspiration/washout. Delayed treatment of septic arthritis results in irreversible joint destruction.

Reference: eTG – 2025 – Antibiotic Guidelines