skip to main content

Anterior Spinal Artery Syndrome — RACP Adult Medicine MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateNeurologyAnterior Spinal Artery SyndromeRACP Adult Medicine

A 55-year-old man presents with sudden onset flaccid paralysis of both legs with urinary retention. Examination shows absent lower limb reflexes, reduced anal tone, and a sensory level at T12. MRI spine shows a hyperintense signal in the anterior two-thirds of the spinal cord on T2-weighted imaging. Posterior columns are spared. What is the most likely vascular territory involved?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: DAnterior spinal artery

Anterior spinal artery syndrome presents with sudden-onset paraplegia, loss of pain/temperature sensation (spinothalamic tracts), and autonomic dysfunction, with PRESERVED proprioception and vibration (dorsal columns – supplied by posterior spinal arteries). The anterior two-thirds of the cord is supplied by the anterior spinal artery. Causes include aortic surgery, aortic dissection, thromboembolism, and systemic hypotension.

Reference: eTG – 2025 – Neurology