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Meningococcal Sepsis — RACP Adult Medicine MCQ

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HardInfectious DiseasesMeningococcal SepsisRACP Adult Medicine

A pregnant household contact had unprotected overnight exposure to a patient with confirmed invasive meningococcal disease two days ago. She has no symptoms and no cephalosporin allergy. Which clearance regimen is preferred?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: A — Single-dose intramuscular ceftriaxone arranged through the public-health unit

Explanation lettering: B = shown as A · A = shown as B · E = shown as C · C = shown as D · D = shown as E

B is correct because ceftriaxone is the preferred clearance agent in pregnancy and should be given promptly to an eligible higher-risk contact. C leaves a close contact untreated. D ignores the pregnancy-specific preference. E has drug-interaction and pregnancy disadvantages when ceftriaxone is available. A delays clearance unnecessarily; serogroup informs additional vaccination decisions, not whether urgent antibiotics begin. Public-health notification and contact assessment occur in parallel.

Reference: NSW Health, Meningococcal disease control guidelines: https://www.health.nsw.gov.au/Infectious/controlguideline/Pages/meningococcal-disease.aspx