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ITP — RACP Adult Medicine MCQ

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EasyHaematologyITPRACP Adult Medicine

A 35-year-old woman presents with petechiae, bruising, and menorrhagia. Platelet count is 15 × 10⁹/L. WCC and Hb are normal. Blood film confirms thrombocytopenia with no abnormal cells. She has no splenomegaly and is not taking any medications. What is the most likely diagnosis?

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Correct answer: DImmune thrombocytopenia (ITP)

Isolated thrombocytopenia in an otherwise well patient with no abnormal blood film features, no splenomegaly, and no drug cause is consistent with ITP (a diagnosis of exclusion). First-line treatment for platelets <30 × 10⁹/L or significant bleeding is prednisolone (1 mg/kg). IVIG provides rapid but temporary platelet rise for severe bleeding.

Reference: BSH – 2024 – ITP Guidelines; ASH 2019 ITP Guidelines