Postoperative Intra-abdominal Sepsis — FRCA Final MCQ
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Correct answer: A — Undertake urgent relook laparotomy for operative source control
Explanation lettering: C = shown as A · D = shown as C · E = shown as D · A = shown as E
C is correct. The CT demonstrates an anastomotic leak with diffuse contamination, while progressive organ dysfunction indicates uncontrolled postoperative intra-abdominal sepsis. Because there is no collection suitable for percutaneous drainage, urgent operative source control should be prioritised. NICE advises early surgical involvement and performance of an appropriate source-control intervention as soon as possible. Piperacillin–tazobactam already covers typical intra-abdominal anaerobes, so adding metronidazole is generally redundant. Empirical escalation to meropenem should be guided by microbiology, resistance risk and local policy and cannot correct an ongoing leak. Antifungal treatment may be considered in selected high-risk patients but is not a substitute for source control. Diagnostic peritoneal lavage adds no useful information because CT has already established the diagnosis and it would not control the contamination.
Reference: National Institute for Health and Care Excellence. NG253, Suspected sepsis in people aged 16 or over: recognition, assessment and early management, section 1.11, Finding and controlling the source of infection. 2025. https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng253/chapter/finding-and-controlling-the-source-of-infection