Thrombocytopenia in Pregnancy — FRCA Final MCQ
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Correct answer: A — Proceed with epidural insertion following senior review and documented risk–benefit discussion
The correct answer is A. This is stable, isolated gestational thrombocytopenia with a recent platelet count of 82 × 10⁹/L, no bleeding phenotype, no anticoagulant exposure and no evidence of pre-eclampsia, HELLP syndrome or another coagulopathy. Contemporary obstetric evidence indicates that the risk of neuraxial haematoma is very low at platelet counts of at least 70 × 10⁹/L in this setting; the decision should follow senior assessment and shared risk–benefit discussion rather than an inflexible threshold. Thromboelastography may provide supplementary information but is not required or validated as a mandatory clearance test. Remifentanil PCA is an alternative when neuraxial analgesia is contraindicated, which it is not here. Prophylactic platelet transfusion is unsupported and exposes the patient to transfusion risk. A further count is unnecessary given the recent result, established diagnosis and stable trajectory.
Reference: Bauer ME et al. The Society for Obstetric Anesthesia and Perinatology Interdisciplinary Consensus Statement on Neuraxial Procedures in Obstetric Patients With Thrombocytopenia. Anesthesia & Analgesia. 2021;132:1531–1544. https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/32259875/