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Febrile Neutropenia — SCE Infectious Diseases MCQ

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HardImmunocompromised HostFebrile NeutropeniaSCE Infectious Diseases

During cytotoxic chemotherapy, a patient becomes febrile with neutrophils 0.3×10⁹/L. Cultures have been drawn, perfusion is stable and there is no immediate beta-lactam allergy. Which empirical intravenous backbone should not await completion of risk stratification?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

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Correct answer: CGive intravenous piperacillin–tazobactam monotherapy immediately, unless patient-specific or local microbiological factors require another regimen with review after review with follow-up

The best answer is “Give intravenous piperacillin–tazobactam monotherapy immediately, unless patient-specific or local microbiological factors require another regimen with review after review with follow-up”. NICE treats suspected neutropenic sepsis as an emergency and recommends prompt broad antipseudomonal beta-lactam therapy. “Use oral ciprofloxacin plus amoxicillin before risk assessment” does not match the decisive clinical feature or cited guidance. “Use teicoplanin monotherapy” does not match the decisive clinical feature or cited guidance. “Observe without antibiotics until cultures are positive” does not match the decisive clinical feature or cited guidance. “Use oral flucloxacillin because no focus is evident” does not match the decisive clinical feature or cited guidance.

Reference: NICE CG151 neutropenic sepsis recommendations: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/cg151/chapter/Recommendations