skip to main content

Coccidioidomycosis — SCE Infectious Diseases MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

ModerateFungal InfectionsCoccidioidomycosisSCE Infectious Diseases

A 22-year-old man develops erythema nodosum, bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and arthralgia 2 weeks after returning from Arizona, USA. Coccidioides serology is positive (complement fixation titre 1:4). He has no respiratory symptoms and is systemically well. What is the most appropriate management?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: DObservation with serial serology; antifungal therapy is not required for uncomplicated primary coccidioidomycosis

This is uncomplicated primary coccidioidomycosis acquired in an endemic area of the south-western USA. Erythema nodosum and arthralgia are early immune-mediated manifestations and do not, by themselves, indicate disseminated fungal disease. He is young, systemically well, has no respiratory symptoms, no immunosuppression or major comorbidity, and a low complement-fixation titre of 1:4. Current specialist guidance recommends patient education, close clinical follow-up and supportive care/observation for mild or non-debilitating primary pulmonary coccidioidomycosis; antifungal treatment is reserved for severe or debilitating illness, extensive pulmonary disease, high/rising titres, significant comorbidity or immunosuppression, pregnancy, or proven disseminated disease. Therefore the best answer is observation with serial serology rather than fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole or amphotericin.

Reference: Infectious Diseases Society of America. Clinical Practice Guideline for the Treatment of Coccidioidomycosis. 2016. https://www.idsociety.org/practice-guideline/coccidioidomycosis/