A 50-year-old woman presents to the GP with a 3-month history of postcoital bleeding. She is perimenopausal. Speculum examination shows a normal-appea...

Question

A 50-year-old woman presents to the GP with a 3-month history of postcoital bleeding. She is perimenopausal. Speculum examination shows a normal-appearing cervix. Her last cervical screening (1 year ago) was HPV negative with normal cytology. Which is the single most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Refer to colposcopy for assessment

Answer

Reassure as her recent cervical screening was normal

Answer

Repeat cervical screening

Answer

Prescribe topical vaginal oestrogen and review in 6 weeks

Answer

Arrange a pelvic ultrasound

uk-drcog MCQ (SBA): Persistent Postcoital Bleeding

A 50-year-old woman presents to the GP with a 3-month history of postcoital bleeding. She is perimenopausal. Speculum examination shows a normal-appearing cervix. Her last cervical screening (1 year ago) was HPV negative with normal cytology. Which is the single most appropriate next step?