A 42-year-old male presents with sudden-onset tearing central chest pain radiating to his back. He is known to have Marfan syndrome. His blood pressur...

Question

A 42-year-old male presents with sudden-onset tearing central chest pain radiating to his back. He is known to have Marfan syndrome. His blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg. After administering analgesia, what is the most important pre-hospital pharmacological intervention?

Accepted Answer

IV labetalol or oral bisoprolol to reduce heart rate and blood pressure

Answer

IV GTN infusion to reduce systolic blood pressure to below 120 mmHg

Answer

No blood pressure management is required pre-hospital

Answer

IV adrenaline to maintain cardiac output

Answer

IV furosemide to reduce preload

uk-dipimc MCQ (SBA): Aortic Dissection Management

A 42-year-old male presents with sudden-onset tearing central chest pain radiating to his back. He is known to have Marfan syndrome. His blood pressure is 210/120 mmHg. After administering analgesia, what is the most important pre-hospital pharmacological intervention?