A 76-year-old man with hypertension and prior TIA presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation. His CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is 5, and he has no contraindica...

Question

A 76-year-old man with hypertension and prior TIA presents with new-onset atrial fibrillation. His CHA₂DS₂-VASc score is 5, and he has no contraindications to anticoagulation. According to the CCS AF guideline and CHADS-65 approach, what is the most appropriate management regarding stroke prevention?

Accepted Answer

Oral anticoagulation with a DOAC or warfarin

Answer

Aspirin alone

Answer

Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel

Answer

No antithrombotic therapy as he is over 65 and at high bleeding risk

Answer

Left atrial appendage occlusion instead of anticoagulation

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Atrial fibrillation stroke prevention