A 64-year-old woman presents with acute, severe pain, redness and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. She has a history of similar episod...

Question

A 64-year-old woman presents with acute, severe pain, redness and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. She has a history of similar episodes. There is no overlying cellulitis or systemic sepsis. According to Canadian gout management principles, what is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment for this acute flare (assuming normal renal function)?

Accepted Answer

Colchicine or NSAIDs at anti-inflammatory doses

Answer

Allopurinol initiation during the flare only

Answer

Long-term low-dose prednisone

Answer

Antibiotics

Answer

No pharmacologic therapy; rest alone

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Acute gout flare management