A 56 year old man presents with sudden onset of a red, exquisitely tender first metatarsophalangeal joint after a large meal and alcohol intake. He ha...

Question

A 56 year old man presents with sudden onset of a red, exquisitely tender first metatarsophalangeal joint after a large meal and alcohol intake. He has no fever and is otherwise well. Which is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management if there are no contraindications?

Accepted Answer

High dose NSAID such as naproxen and rest

Answer

Allopurinol initiation immediately

Answer

Long term low dose colchicine alone

Answer

Intra articular steroid injection only

Answer

Antibiotics for presumed septic arthritis

ca-mccqe1 MCQ (SBA): Gout

A 56 year old man presents with sudden onset of a red, exquisitely tender first metatarsophalangeal joint after a large meal and alcohol intake. He has no fever and is otherwise well. Which is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic management if there are no contraindications?