skip to main content

Obstetrics & Gynaecology — UKMLA MCQ

Instant feedback + full explanation. One question, done properly.

MediumObstetrics & GynaecologyUKMLA

A 40-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation presents with vaginal bleeding and crampy lower abdominal pain. Pelvic ultrasound shows an empty uterus with no gestational sac. Serum β-hCG is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Educational content. Not a substitute for clinical judgement or local policy.

Reveal the answer and explanation

Correct answer: DEctopic pregnancy

An empty uterus with a positive pregnancy test and bleeding raises suspicion of ectopic pregnancy. NICE guidelines highlight transvaginal ultrasound as key to diagnosis. A gestational sac should be visible in the uterus by this stage if intrauterine.

Reference: NICE Guideline [NG126] Ectopic pregnancy and miscarriage