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BRCA mutation — DRCOG MCQ

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HardObstetrics & GynaecologyBRCA mutationDRCOG

A 42-year-old BRCA1 carrier has completed her family and has no contraindication to surgery. Which intervention most effectively reduces ovarian cancer risk?

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Correct answer: C — Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy after familial-cancer team counselling

The best answer is “Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy after familial-cancer team counselling”. NICE recommends bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for BRCA1 carriers no earlier than 35 years, timed to individual risk and completed childbearing after familial ovarian cancer multidisciplinary counselling. Surveillance does not provide the same risk reduction, and the consequences of surgical menopause require discussion.

Reference: NICE NG241: Familial and genetic ovarian cancer risk: https://www.nice.org.uk/guidance/ng241/chapter/recommendations