A 48-year-old man presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and persistent hyperglycaemia. Investigations reveal significantly elevated serum osmolality, mi...

Question

A 48-year-old man presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and persistent hyperglycaemia. Investigations reveal significantly elevated serum osmolality, minimal ketosis, and a very high blood glucose >30 mmol/L. Which condition is most likely?

Accepted Answer

Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state (HHS)

Answer

Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

Answer

Hypoglycaemia

Answer

Lactic acidosis

Answer

Hyperthyroidism

MCQ (SBA): Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state

A 48-year-old man presents with polydipsia, polyuria, and persistent hyperglycaemia. Investigations reveal significantly elevated serum osmolality, minimal ketosis, and a very high blood glucose >30 mmol/L. Which condition is most likely?