Question

A 40-year-old man attends his GP with low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and reduced appetite for 2 months. He continues to work but with difficulty. There are no psychotic features or suicidality. What is the most appropriate initial management?

Accepted Answer

Offer low-intensity psychological interventions such as guided self-help or computerised CBT

Answer

Immediate prescription of an SSRI without further assessment

Answer

Refer urgently to secondary care mental health services

Answer

Start a benzodiazepine for sleep

Answer

Advise watchful waiting with no active intervention

Practice question

A 40-year-old man attends his GP with low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep and reduced appetite for 2 months. He continues to work but with difficulty. There are no psychotic features or suicidality. What is the most appropriate initial management?