A 60-year-old man presents with acute onset of a hot, swollen, very tender first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is afebrile. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?AOral NSAID such as Naproxen, if no contraindicationsBProphylactic Allopurinol immediatelyCLong-term Colchicine alone onlyDHigh-dose systemic steroids for 6 monthsEOral antibiotic therapyCheck my answer