A 58-year-old man presents with sudden onset of a painful, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. Joint aspirate shows needle-shaped negatively birefringent crystals. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for this acute flare?AStart Allopurinol immediatelyBNon-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug if no contraindicationCLong-term Colchicine prophylaxis onlyDOral AntibioticsEIntra-articular steroid without considering systemic therapyCheck my answer