Question

A 54-year-old white British man is found to have persistent clinic blood pressure readings around 162/96 mmHg. Ambulatory monitoring confirms stage 2 hypertension. He has no diabetes, renal disease or cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate first-line drug treatment?

Accepted Answer

Ramipril

Answer

Amlodipine

Answer

Thiazide-like diuretic (Indapamide)

Answer

Bisoprolol

Answer

No drug treatment, lifestyle advice only

Practice question

A 54-year-old white British man is found to have persistent clinic blood pressure readings around 162/96 mmHg. Ambulatory monitoring confirms stage 2 hypertension. He has no diabetes, renal disease or cardiovascular disease. What is the most appropriate first-line drug treatment?