A 48-year-old man with long-standing hypertension presents with a blood pressure of 210/120 mmHg and bilateral retinal haemorrhages and papilloedema on fundoscopy. He has headache but no focal neurology. What is the most appropriate management?AStart oral antihypertensives in the community and review in 1 weekBUrgent same-day GP review onlyCImmediate hospital admission for management of accelerated (malignant) hypertensionDDischarge with advice to monitor blood pressure at homeENo treatment required if asymptomaticCheck my answer