A 40-year-old man presents with a painful, hot, swollen right knee that became acutely painful overnight. He has a fever of 38.2°C and is unable to bear weight. There is no history of trauma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?AStart NSAIDs and arrange routine rheumatology reviewBPerform urgent joint aspiration and send synovial fluid for microscopy, culture and crystal analysisCOrder a plain X-ray and review in 1 weekDStart allopurinol immediatelyEGive oral antibiotics without aspirationCheck my answer