A 58-year-old man presents with sudden onset severe pain and swelling in the first metatarsophalangeal joint. He drinks alcohol regularly and takes a thiazide diuretic. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management?AStart Allopurinol immediately and increase the dose rapidlyBStart a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug such as Naproxen, unless contraindicatedCPrescribe long-term Colchicine as prophylaxis without treating the acute attackDStart Aspirin 75 mg once dailyEGive high-dose oral Prednisolone for 3 monthsCheck my answer