A 54-year-old woman presents with a hot, swollen, very tender right first metatarsophalangeal joint, which became painful overnight. She is febrile at 38.0°C. There is no history of trauma. What is the most appropriate next step in management?AUrgent joint aspiration for microscopy and culture to exclude septic arthritisBStart NSAIDs for presumed gout without investigationCArrange routine rheumatology referral without acute treatmentDPrescribe antibiotics for presumed cellulitis without joint assessmentEReassure and observe without treatmentCheck my answer