A 69-year-old man is reviewed in clinic for blood pressure management. He is otherwise well with an eGFR of 70 mL/min/1.73 m² and no proteinuria. His average clinic blood pressure is 158/96 mmHg confirmed by ambulatory monitoring. He is of Afro-Caribbean origin and not currently on antihypertensive therapy. According to current UK guidance, which is the most appropriate first-line drug treatment?