A 58-year-old man presents with acute onset severe pain, redness, and swelling of the first metatarsophalangeal joint. He has a history of hypertension. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?AColchicine only if symptoms persist for >1 weekBNon-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug such as naproxenCAllopurinol started immediately to lower urateDOral prednisolone is contraindicatedEAntibiotics for presumed septic arthritisCheck my answer