A 42-year-old man has moderate depression with marked functional impairment and no previous treatment. There is no immediate suicide risk. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?APsychological therapy alone is sufficient; antidepressants are contraindicatedBCombined antidepressant (e.g. SSRI) and psychological therapyCLong-term benzodiazepines aloneDElectroconvulsive therapy as first-lineENo treatment; symptoms will resolve spontaneouslyCheck my answer