A 60-year-old man presents with an acutely painful, swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He drinks alcohol regularly and is afebrile. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?AAllopurinol immediatelyBHigh-dose NSAID such as Naproxen (if no contraindications)CLong-term Colchicine prophylaxis onlyDOral antibioticsEOral steroids in all cases first-lineCheck my answer