A 64-year-old man presents with a first unprovoked proximal deep vein thrombosis of the left femoral vein. He has normal renal function and no active cancer or contraindications to anticoagulation. What is the most appropriate initial management?ANo anticoagulation, use compression stockings onlyBThree months of low-dose acetylsalicylic acidCFull-dose oral anticoagulation with a direct oral anticoagulant for at least 3 monthsDInferior vena cava filter placement without anticoagulationEIndefinite low-molecular-weight heparin therapy regardless of riskCheck my answer