A 40-year-old man presents with chronic diarrhoea and weight loss. Laboratory studies show microcytic anaemia (Hb 102 g/L, MCV 70 fL) and low ferritin. What is the most appropriate initial management?ANo treatment required if patient is asymptomaticBStart oral iron supplementation and investigate for gastrointestinal blood lossCTransfuse two units of red blood cells immediatelyDStart high-dose prednisoneEBegin broad-spectrum antibioticsCheck my answer