A 28-year-old man has a first generalised tonic-clonic seizure. CT brain and basic blood tests are normal. He has no neurological deficit and EEG is pending. What is the most appropriate management at this stage?AStart long-term antiepileptic therapy immediatelyBNo driving and arrange outpatient EEG and neurology review before deciding on treatmentCDischarge with no restrictions and no follow-upDAdmit for mandatory neurosurgical interventionEStart long-term benzodiazepine therapyCheck my answer