A 58-year-old man presents with an acutely swollen, painful first MTP joint. He has a history of gout and normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate acute management?AHigh-dose NSAIDs (if no contraindication) or colchicineBAllopurinol initiation during the acute attackCLong-term corticosteroids onlyDAntibiotics for presumed septic arthritis without aspirationENo treatment is requiredCheck my answer