A 35-year-old woman has episodic severe migraines occurring twice monthly with significant work absenteeism. Abortive therapy with NSAIDs and triptans is effective. Which statement best reflects guideline-based prophylaxis?AProphylactic therapy is indicated only if attacks occur more than 15 days per monthBProphylactic therapy can be considered when attacks are frequent or disabling despite optimal acute treatmentCProphylactic therapy is never indicated in young womenDOnly opioids are effective preventivesEProphylaxis must always be with monoclonal antibodiesCheck my answer