A 72-year-old man with permanent atrial fibrillation, hypertension and prior ischaemic stroke has an eGFR of 40 mL/min/1.73 m². He is not on anticoagulation. What is the MOST appropriate antithrombotic strategy?AAspirin 100 mg daily aloneBOral anticoagulation with a direct-acting oral anticoagulant at a renally adjusted doseCDual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrelDLow molecular weight heparin indefinitelyENo antithrombotic therapy as bleeding risk is high in the elderlyCheck my answer