A 70-year-old man with non-valvular atrial fibrillation on warfarin (INR target 2.0-3.0) is scheduled for elective colonoscopy with possible polypectomy. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 3 and he has no prior stroke or TIA. According to Australian peri-procedural anticoagulation guidance, what is the most appropriate management of warfarin?