Question

A 30-year-old man presents with 1 day of fever, rigours, productive cough with green sputum and pleuritic chest pain. He has no comorbidities, is not tachypnoeic, and has normal blood pressure and oxygen saturation. Chest X-ray shows a right lower lobe consolidation. According to Canadian CAP guidance, which is the most appropriate disposition and initial management?

Accepted Answer

Treat as an outpatient with oral Amoxicillin or Amoxicillin-Clavulanate and close follow-up

Answer

Admit to hospital and start intravenous broad-spectrum antipseudomonal antibiotics

Answer

Discharge without antibiotics because he is young and previously healthy

Answer

Admit to ICU for non-invasive ventilation and intravenous antibiotics

Answer

Start oral macrolide monotherapy and schedule routine follow-up in 1 month

Practice question