A 40-year-old woman with schizophrenia treated with risperidone presents with 3 months of galactorrhoea and amenorrhoea. Pregnancy test is negative. Prolactin is markedly elevated. What is the MOST appropriate next step?AStop risperidone and switch to a prolactin-sparing antipsychotic such as aripiprazole after psychiatric reviewBStart bromocriptine while continuing risperidoneCReassure her that this is harmless and continue current regimenDStop all antipsychotic treatment immediatelyEStart combined oral contraceptive to regulate mensesCheck my answer