Question

A 28-year-old woman presents to her GP with a history of panic attacks and a strong family history of bipolar disorder. She currently has low mood, hypersomnia and increased appetite for 3 weeks, with no history of mania or hypomania. Before prescribing an antidepressant, what is the most appropriate next step?

Accepted Answer

Screen carefully for past hypomanic symptoms and consider referral for psychiatric assessment

Answer

Start SSRI immediately as family history is irrelevant

Answer

Start benzodiazepines long-term instead of antidepressants

Answer

Order routine brain imaging

Answer

Start combination SSRI and antipsychotic therapy immediately

Practice question