Question

A 44-year-old man presents with polyuria, polydipsia and weight loss. Random venous plasma glucose is 19 mmol/L and ketones are negative. HbA1c is 10.5% (91 mmol/mol). He has no acidosis and is haemodynamically stable. According to Australian diabetes guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management?

Accepted Answer

Start metformin monotherapy and review glucose control over the next 3 months

Answer

Start metformin and basal insulin together

Answer

Start lifestyle modification only and repeat HbA1c in 3 months

Answer

Start basal-bolus insulin regimen immediately

Answer

Commence a sulfonylurea only

Practice question